As the CLAT PG 2026 exam draws closer, taking mocks is one of the smartest things you can do right now. This free CLAT PG mock test series brings you high-quality passages and multiple-choice questions based on real legal topics, from the Ladakh and Sixth Schedule issue (Constitution) to Law and Morality (Jurisprudence), Reservation in Promotions (Jarnail Singh), and International Humanitarian Law.
Every passage mirrors the current CLAT PG pattern: long, analytical, and concept-driven. If you’re serious about your CLAT PG 2026 preparation, start here. Take this free mock, check your accuracy, and see where you stand before the real exam.
Passage 1: Ladakh Issue and Sixth Schedule
Recently, climate activist, Sonam Wangchuk, was detained at the Delhi border while leading a protest for Ladakh’s inclusion in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution. The demand for sixth schedule status is aimed for greater autonomy to the region. Also, recently, similar demands have been made in Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur for their inclusion in the sixth schedule. The focus is on the protection of ethnic groups under special constitutional provisions.
The Fifth Schedule applies to ‘Scheduled Areas,’ which are identified based on criteria like a high tribal population and economic backwardness. The fifth schedule areas span across 10 states. Tribes Advisory Councils (TACs) advise on tribal welfare. Governors have powers to regulate land allotment and manage money-lending practices in these areas, ensuring some degree of tribal autonomy. The Sixth Schedule grants greater autonomy to tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura.
Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) manage land use, inheritance laws, and social customs. ADCs hold legislative, executive, and financial powers, with the ability to collect taxes and manage local resources.
Excerpt taken from Forumias
1. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between the Fifth and Sixth Schedules of the Indian Constitution?
A) Fifth Schedule applies to tribal areas in the Northeast; Sixth Schedule applies to all other tribal areas.
B) Sixth Schedule provides for Autonomous District Councils with legislative powers; Fifth Schedule primarily provides for administration and control by the Governor.
C) Both Fifth and Sixth Schedule provide identical powers to tribal areas across India.
D) Fifth Schedule allows for Autonomous District Councils; Sixth Schedule does not.
Answer: B) Sixth Schedule provides for Autonomous District Councils with legislative powers; Fifth Schedule primarily provides for administration and control by the Governor.
Explanation: Sixth Schedule empowers ADCs to legislate on land, forest, inheritance, and social customs. Fifth Schedule gives Governor authority over administration of tribal areas outside the Northeast.
2. Which of the following arguments supports Ladakh’s demand for Sixth Schedule inclusion?
A) Ladakh already has a Union Territory administration, making Sixth Schedule redundant.
B) Sixth Schedule councils can manage land, forest, and local resources autonomously.
C) Inclusion under Sixth Schedule would centralize governance, reducing local autonomy.
D) Sixth Schedule inclusion is constitutionally prohibited outside the Northeast.
Answer: B) Sixth Schedule councils can manage land, forest, and local resources autonomously.
Explanation: Sixth Schedule inclusion empowers local councils to regulate land and resource use, protecting tribal rights and culture.
3. Which of the following is a primary constitutional challenge in extending Sixth Schedule status to Ladakh?
A) Ladakh is already a Union Territory with a Lieutenant Governor.
B) Sixth Schedule is explicitly meant for certain Northeast states, requiring constitutional amendment for Ladakh.
C) Sixth Schedule status would immediately make Ladakh a state.
D) Sixth Schedule councils cannot legislate on local matters.
Answer: B) Sixth Schedule is explicitly meant for certain Northeast states, requiring constitutional amendment for Ladakh.
Explanation: Article 244(2) restricts Sixth Schedule provisions to tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
4. Which of the following powers do Autonomous District Councils under the Sixth Schedule possess?
A) Make laws on land, forests, inheritance, and marriage customs within their jurisdiction.
B) Impose income tax and GST.
C) Regulate foreign investment in tribal areas.
D) Overrule central government decisions on national security.
Answer: A) Make laws on land, forests, inheritance, and marriage customs within their jurisdiction.
Explanation: ADCs can legislate on specified local matters but require Governor’s assent; they cannot regulate taxes like GST or interfere with national security.
5. Which of the following reasons is cited against granting statehood to Ladakh?
A) Ladakh has no strategic significance.
B) Statehood may complicate administration and security coordination along the sensitive border.
C) Ladakh already enjoys Sixth Schedule protections.
D) There is no unemployment in Ladakh, so statehood is unnecessary.
Answer: B) Statehood may complicate administration and security coordination along the sensitive border.
Explanation: Direct UT administration ensures clear chain of command for border security with China and Pakistan.
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6. The Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils (LAHDCs) can be strengthened to address autonomy demands. Which of the following is most feasible without a constitutional amendment?
A) Granting Sixth Schedule powers fully to LAHDCs.
B) Strengthening LAHDCs’ legislative, executive, and judicial authority on local governance.
C) Declaring Ladakh a separate state under Article 3.
D) Centralizing all administration under the Lieutenant Governor.
Answer: B) Strengthening LAHDCs’ legislative, executive, and judicial authority on local governance.
Explanation: LAHDCs can be empowered by statute without amending the Constitution, offering practical local autonomy.
7. Which of the following developmental measures can Ladakh pursue under Sixth Schedule autonomy?
A) Creating its own defense forces.
B) Regulating land use, forests, and local resource management.
C) Altering India’s foreign policy toward China.
D) Imposing national taxes independently.
Answer: B) Regulating land use, forests, and local resource management.
Explanation: Sixth Schedule councils control local resources, not defense or foreign policy.
8. Which of the following is true about the composition of Autonomous District Councils under the Sixth Schedule?
A) Entirely appointed by the Governor.
B) Entirely elected by adult franchise.
C) Partly elected, partly nominated by the Governor.
D) Composed only of tribal chiefs.
Answer: C) Partly elected, partly nominated by the Governor.
Explanation: Typically, 4 members are nominated by the Governor, remaining members elected by adult franchise (max 30 members per council).
9. Which of the following arguments reflects concern over Sixth Schedule inclusion hindering economic growth in Ladakh?
A) It would prevent local elections.
B) Restrictions on land and resource use may deter investment and infrastructure development.
C) It would remove reservation for STs.
D) Sixth Schedule automatically merges Ladakh with Jammu & Kashmir.
Answer: B) Restrictions on land and resource use may deter investment and infrastructure development.
Explanation: Legal autonomy for ecological protection may limit industrial or large-scale infrastructure projects.
10. Which of the following measures balances Ladakh’s autonomy demands with India’s national security concerns?
A) Full statehood with unrestricted legislative powers.
B) Strengthening LAHDCs and introducing a tailored Sixth Schedule model with limited powers.
C) Merging Ladakh back with Jammu & Kashmir.
D) Removing all tribal protections to allow rapid industrialisation.
Answer: B) Strengthening LAHDCs and introducing a tailored Sixth Schedule model with limited powers.
Explanation: A hybrid approach ensures local governance, cultural preservation, and ecological protection while maintaining strategic oversight.
Passage 2: Law and Morality
A society is a blend of individuals’ ideals, norms, beliefs, cultures, ethics, and values. Any society is guided by an acceptable code of conduct and standards that are followed by all. This is necessary to regulate and harmonise diverse belief systems. Since time immemorial, morals and ethics have played a significant role in regulating human behaviour in a society.
With modernisation, these morals formed the foundation of a formal code of rules and regulations that is backed by state authority. A formal system was established to ensure uniformity of conduct and protect the interests of its people. This formal system (which came to be known as ‘Law’) depends largely on the social values, accepted norms, and behavioural patterns of a particular society at a given time.
This establishes a significant relationship between law and morality. Both exert significant influence on society, capable of shaping or destabilising its foundations. In India, this relationship is shaped by historical, cultural, and religious influences. The Indian Constitution incorporates moral principles through Fundamental Rights, Duties, and Directive Principles. The interplay between law and morality in India is dynamic, reflecting a blend of tradition and modernity.
Excerpt taken from juscorpus
1. According to John Austin, law derives its authority from:
A) Conscience of individuals guided by morality.
B) Popular faith, customs, and common consciousness of people.
C) The command of the Sovereign, backed by sanction.
D) The balancing of competing interests in society through applied science.
Answer: C
Austin defined law as the command of the Sovereign, backed by sanction.
2. Which jurist’s theory aligns with the idea that “Law was rooted in the past of a nation and its sources were popular faith, custom and common consciousness of people”?
A) Roscoe Pound
B) H.L.A. Hart
C) John Austin
D) Von Savigny
Answer: D
Savigny’s Historical School emphasised that law grows from the spirit of the people.
3. Roscoe Pound’s “Theory of Social Engineering” views law as:
A) The command of the sovereign with sanction.
B) The reconciliation of competing interests in society using applied science.
C) A set of customs derived from people’s spirit.
D) An embodiment of morality in its purest sense.
Answer: B
Pound’s theory = law balances competing social interests like applied engineering.
4. Which of the following is NOT a key difference between law and morality?
A) Law derives authority from the state; morality derives from conscience/religion.
B) Violation of the law invites official sanctions; morality lacks formal penalties.
C) Law only concerns conduct; morality also concerns motives.
D) Law and morality are static, fixed principles unaffected by society.
Answer: D
Both law and morality are dynamic and evolving, not static.
5. The case of Queen v. Dudley and Stephens (1884) is significant because it illustrates:
A) Law permitted necessity as a valid defense to murder.
B) Morality overrode law in deciding guilt.
C) Necessity was rejected as a defense to murder, despite moral dilemmas.
D) The defense of consent can override fundamental rights.
Answer: C
The court held them guilty of murder, rejecting necessity as a defense.
6. Which of the following provisions best embodies the principle of constitutional morality in India?
A) Articles 25 and 26 (freedom of religion)
B) Article 32 (constitutional remedies)
C) Article 370 (special provisions for J&K)
D) Article 368 (amendment power of Parliament)
Answer: A
Constitutional morality is reflected in freedom of religion (Arts. 25, 26) but is bounded by equality, dignity, and liberty.
7. In Indian constitutional law, morality has often been invoked to test laws. Which of the following best captures this relationship?
A) Morality is irrelevant in judicial interpretation as law is sovereign.
B) Morality acts as an external limit on individual rights.
C) Morality and law exist independently and never overlap.
D) Morality is often used by courts while interpreting rights like equality and dignity.
Answer: D
Courts have relied on morality (esp. constitutional morality) in interpreting fundamental rights.
8. In the Sabarimala Temple case (Indian Young Lawyers Assn. v. State of Kerala, 2018), the Court held that:
A) Religious morality can override fundamental rights.
B) Exclusion of women was unconstitutional as it violated fundamental rights.
C) Customary morality is supreme over constitutional morality.
D) Morality is irrelevant in matters of religious freedom.
Answer: B
The Court ruled exclusion of women violated equality and fundamental rights.
9. Which of the following cases reflects the principle that “social morality cannot be a justification for violation of fundamental rights”?
A) Queen v. Dudley and Stephens
B) Navtej Singh Johar v. UOI
C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
D) ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
Answer: B
In Navtej Singh Johar (2018), the Court struck down part of S. 377 IPC, emphasising that social morality cannot override constitutional rights.
10. The recognition of transgender individuals as “third gender” in NALSA v. UOI (2014) primarily reflects which dimension of the law-morality relationship?
A) Morality as a test of law
B) Morality as part of law
C) Morality as the end of law
D) Morality as the origin of law
Answer: B
The judgment reflects that morality (justice, equity, good conscience) is embedded within the legal system itself.
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Passage 3: Jarnail Singh
On September 26th 2018, the Court delivered its verdict. It did not call for a review of Nagaraj. Further, it struck down the demonstration of backwardness provision from Nagaraj. However, while doing so, it introduced the creamy layer exclusion principle, thus requiring that the State does not extend reservations in promotion to SC/ST individuals who belong to the creamy layer of the said SC/ST.
Since the judgment in Nagaraj, many States have found it difficult to satisfy the conditions it laid down. Various High Courts have struck down policies providing reservation in promotions. These decisions came on appeal to the Supreme Court. The Court decided to hear this application along with petitions seeking clarifications on Jarnail Singh.
In September 2021, the Court refused to reconsider Jarnail Singh. However, it agreed to hear arguments on whether any clarifications were necessary. The Bench hearing these arguments consists of Justices Nageswara Rao, B.R. Gavai and Sanjiv Khanna. The Court will broadly address two questions. First, what does inadequate representation in a class of posts mean, and how can it be proved? Second, what does maintaining efficiency in administration mean, and how can it be guaranteed?
Excerpt taken from SCO
1. Which constitutional provision empowers the State to provide reservation in promotions for SC/STs?
A) Article 16(4)
B) Article 16(4A)
C) Article 335
D) Article 16(4B)
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 16(4A), inserted by the 77th Amendment, specifically enables the State to provide reservation in promotions for SC/STs. Article 16(4) applies only to initial appointments.
Q2. Which condition laid down in M. Nagaraj (2006) was struck down by the Supreme Court in Jarnail Singh (2018)?
A) Need to prove backwardness of SC/STs for promotion.
B) Maintaining administrative efficiency while providing reservations.
C) Carrying forward unfilled reserved posts.
D) Introduction of creamy layer exclusion.
Answer: A
Explanation: Jarnail Singh struck down the requirement that the State must demonstrate backwardness afresh for SC/STs while providing promotion reservation.
Q3. The creamy layer principle in the context of reservation in promotion implies:
A) SC/STs in the creamy layer are excluded from promotion reservations.
B) The creamy layer is only applicable to initial appointments, not promotions.
C) All SC/STs are automatically entitled to promotion reservations.
D) It is applicable only to private sector employment.
Answer: A
Explanation: Post Jarnail Singh, SC/ST individuals belonging to the creamy layer are excluded from promotion reservations.
Q4. Which of the following amendments allowed reserved promotion posts that remain unfilled to be carried forward without affecting the 50% quota ceiling?
A) 77th Amendment
B) 81st Amendment
C) 82nd Amendment
D) 85th Amendment
Answer: B
Explanation: Article 16(4B), inserted by the 81st Amendment, allows carrying forward unfilled reserved promotion posts and ensures that the 50% ceiling is not violated in subsequent years.
Q5. The Indra Sawhney judgment primarily differs from Nagaraj in which aspect?
A) Indra Sawhney allowed reservation in promotions for SC/STs; Nagaraj prohibited it.
B) Indra Sawhney held reservations under Article 16(4) do not apply to promotions; Nagaraj validated Parliament’s power to provide such reservations.
C) Indra Sawhney imposed the creamy layer principle; Nagaraj rejected it.
D) Both judgments dealt only with backward classes other than SC/STs.
Answer: B
Explanation: Indra Sawhney (1992) held that Article 16(4) reservations apply only to initial appointments, not promotions. Nagaraj validated constitutional amendments allowing reservation in promotions for SC/STs.
Q6. In the context of administrative efficiency, which principle is directly linked under Article 335 and clarified in Jarnail Singh?
A) Efficiency can be relaxed in matters of promotion for SC/STs, provided the creamy layer is excluded.
B) Efficiency is not a concern once a reservation is provided.
C) Efficiency requires that no SC/ST can be promoted without fulfilling general standards.
D) Efficiency is applicable only for private sector promotions.
Answer: A
Explanation: The 85th Amendment clarified that Article 335’s efficiency requirement does not apply to the relaxation of standards in promotion for SC/STs, but the creamy layer exclusion is required.
Q7. Which of the following correctly represents the tripartite test laid down in Nagaraj (2006) for granting reservation in promotion?
A) Backwardness of class, inadequate representation, and interest in administrative efficiency.
B) Population ratio, social equity, and political representation.
C) Merit, seniority, departmental performance.
D) Legislative intent, executive discretion, judicial review.
Answer: A
Explanation: Nagaraj laid down that the State must demonstrate (i) backwardness of the class, (ii) inadequate representation in service, and (iii) that reservation is in the interest of administrative efficiency.
Q8. Which of the following best describes the issue referred for clarification in Jarnail Singh's (2025 hearings)?
A) Whether reservation in promotion violates equality under Article 14.
B) How the inadequate representation of SC/STs in a class of posts can be quantified and proved.
C) Whether the ceiling of 50% applies to initial appointments.
D) Whether the State can reserve promotions for OBCs under Article 16(4A).
Answer: B
Explanation: The Court sought to clarify how “inadequate representation” should be quantified and demonstrated in promotion matters.
Q9. Which of the following constitutional amendments clarified that “consequential seniority” for SC/STs will apply in matters of reservation in promotions?
A) 77th Amendment
B) 81st Amendment
C) 82nd Amendment
D) 85th Amendment
Answer: D
Explanation: The 85th Amendment (2001) clarified that SC/STs entitled to reservation in promotions will get consequential seniority under Article 16(4B).
Q10. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Supreme Court’s stance on reconsidering Jarnail Singh?
A) The Court fully reviewed and overruled Nagaraj.
B) The Court refused to reconsider but agreed to clarify conditions such as inadequate representation and efficiency.
C) The Court abolished the creamy layer principle.
D) The Court ruled that SC/ST reservation in promotions is unconstitutional.
Answer: B
Explanation: In September 2021, the Court refused to reconsider Jarnail Singh but agreed to hear clarifications on proving inadequate representation and maintaining administrative efficiency.
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Passage 4: Laws of War
The International Criminal Court and most scholars consider the Israel-Hamas conflict to be both a non-international armed conflict between Israel and Hamas and an international armed conflict between Israel and the State of Palestine, such that both Additional Protocols apply, although this view is not universally accepted. The Geneva Conventions were designed for inter-state wars, and some provisions may not fully bind non-state actors such as Hamas. However, customary international humanitarian law — which is based on patterns of consistent state practices over time that give rise to a sense of legal obligation (opinio juris), of which 161 rules have been codified by the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) — does apply equally to states and non-state actors.
Judicature International: How does international humanitarian law define the principles of distinction and proportionality in the context of the Israel-Hamas conflict?
Revkin: The IHL principles of distinction and proportionality provide important protections for civilians as well as humanitarian and medical personnel and prisoners of war. Distinction requires that attacks be directed only at military objectives and not at civilians or civilian objects such as schools and hospitals. Proportionality prohibits attacks that would cause excessive civilian damage in relation to the anticipated military advantage. Although both principles apply to the Israel-Hamas conflict, they are more difficult to apply in asymmetric urban warfare than in the conventional battles between regular armed forces during World Wars I and II, which tended to be fought outside of cities, as the drafters of the Geneva Conventions had in mind.
Excerpt taken from Judicature. Duke.
Q1. During an armed conflict, a military commander plans to attack an enemy ammunition depot located near a school. The expected civilian casualties are likely to be higher than the military advantage gained. Which principle of International Humanitarian Law is primarily being violated if the attack proceeds?
A) Distinction
B) Military Necessity
C) Proportionality
D) Humanity
Answer: C) Proportionality
Explanation: The principle of proportionality prohibits attacks where incidental harm to civilians or civilian objects would be excessive relative to the anticipated military advantage (Article 51(5)(b), Additional Protocol I). Even if the target is legitimate, the attack cannot be disproportionate.
Q2. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between International Armed Conflicts (IAC) and Non-International Armed Conflicts (NIAC)?
A) IACs require a declaration of war, while NIACs do not.
B) Common Article 3 applies only to IACs, not NIACs.
C) NIACs require sustained armed confrontations between organised non-state groups within a state.
D) IACs apply only if a state occupies the territory of another state with resistance.
Answer: C) NIACs require sustained armed confrontations between organised non-state groups within a state.
Explanation: NIACs occur within a single state and involve conflicts between government forces and organised non-state armed groups or among such groups. Intensity and organisation are crucial for NIAC classification.
Q3. Under IHL, which of the following individuals would lose civilian protection and become a legitimate target in an armed conflict?
A) A doctor treating wounded soldiers behind the front line.
B) A member of a resistance group who carries arms openly and participates in hostilities.
C) A civilian cooking for the family of soldiers but not directly participating in combat.
D) A humanitarian aid worker delivering medical supplies to a civilian area.
Answer: B) A member of a resistance group who carries arms openly and participates in hostilities.
Explanation: Civilians are protected unless they take direct part in hostilities. Lawful combatants and organized armed group members engaged in hostilities can be targeted.
Q4. Which of the following historical or legal developments directly established the principle that “following orders is not a defense” for war crimes?
A) Hague Conventions, 1907
B) Geneva Conventions, 1949
C) Nuremberg Trials, 1945–1946
D) Islamic Sharia Laws
Answer: C) Nuremberg Trials, 1945–1946
Explanation: The Nuremberg Trials set the precedent that individuals, including heads of state and military officers, could be held personally responsible for war crimes. “Superior orders” is not a valid defense.
Q5. A cultural heritage site is located within a city occupied by foreign forces during an armed conflict. The occupying power uses it as a military command post. Which of the following statements is legally correct under IHL?
A) The site loses all protection and can be lawfully destroyed.
B) The site remains protected unless directly attacked for legitimate military advantage.
C) Protection applies only to religious buildings, not cultural monuments.
D) The site can be attacked without warning if civilians are evacuated.
Answer: B) The site remains protected unless directly attacked for legitimate military advantage.
Explanation: Cultural property is protected under the 1954 Hague Convention, but if used for military purposes, it can become a legitimate target. Precautions to minimize civilian and cultural damage must still be taken.
Q6. In the context of the Israel-Hamas conflict, attacks on hospitals and schools are sometimes justified by Israel on the grounds that these buildings are used for military purposes. Which IHL concept is directly invoked in such justifications?
A) Proportionality
B) Dual-Use Objects
C) Military Necessity
D) Precaution
Answer: B) Dual-Use Objects
Explanation: Dual-use objects are civilian structures that serve both civilian and military functions. Their use as military objectives can make them lawful targets, but it increases the risk to civilians. This concept complicates the application of distinction in dense urban warfare.
Q7. Which of the following statements best explains why the principle of proportionality in IHL is particularly challenging to apply in modern conflicts like Gaza?
A) Proportionality only applies to attacks on combatants, not civilian objects.
B) Modern urban warfare and repeated attacks create cumulative civilian harm not captured by traditional assessments.
C) Proportionality is irrelevant in conflicts involving non-state actors like Hamas.
D) The principle allows unrestricted attacks on dual-use objects.
Answer: B) Modern urban warfare and repeated attacks create cumulative civilian harm not captured by traditional assessments.
Explanation: Proportionality requires balancing military advantage and civilian harm. In modern air or drone warfare, repeated strikes can cause long-term cumulative harm that traditional proportionality tests do not fully capture.
Q8. Regarding India’s suspension of the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT), which provision of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties (VCLT) could be invoked to justify such action due to alleged state-sponsored cross-border terrorism?
A) Article 26 – Pacta Sunt Servanda
B) Article 60 – Termination or Suspension due to Breach
C) Article 62 – Fundamental Change of Circumstances
D) Both B and C
Answer: D) Both B and C
Explanation: Article 60 allows suspension due to material breach, and Article 62 permits suspension or termination under fundamental, unforeseen changes of circumstance. India could potentially invoke both to justify suspending the IWT.
Q9. Which of the following best reflects the applicability of the Geneva Conventions and customary international law to non-state actors like Hamas?
A) Geneva Conventions fully bind Hamas, but customary law does not.
B) Customary IHL applies to Hamas, but some Geneva Convention provisions may not fully bind non-state actors.
C) Both Geneva Conventions and customary law are irrelevant for non-state actors.
D) Non-state actors are bound only if a formal peace treaty recognises them.
Answer: B) Customary IHL applies to Hamas, but some Geneva Convention provisions may not fully bind non-state actors.
Explanation: While customary IHL (like 161 ICRC codified rules) binds all parties, the Geneva Conventions were drafted for inter-state wars and may not directly bind non-state armed groups.
Q10. Under international law, which principle would be most directly violated if a state knowingly provides support to armed groups carrying out attacks on civilians, such as in the Pahalgam incident?
A) Jus ad Bellum
B) State Responsibility and Jus Cogens Norms
C) Principle of Proportionality
D) Dual-Use Doctrine
Answer: B) State Responsibility and Jus Cogens Norms
Explanation: Deliberate support for terrorism violates peremptory norms (jus cogens) like the prohibition on targeting civilians and triggers international responsibility for the supporting state under customary international law
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